My thanks go to the person who pointed out to me a
recent article in the Wall Street Journal published yesterday (February
3, 2025). The article written by Sam
Goldfarb with the headline “Wall Street Frets Over U.S. Debt Plan” (pgs. B1,
B6) deals with U.S. debt management issues, meaning the use of shorter-term
debt instruments such as T-bills and notes and longer-term debt instruments
such as U.S. bonds that upon issuance mature in more than ten years. It also deals with the size of the U.S.
national debt.
The article has me posing questions. I list the questions below in sets.
1. Has the recent reliance on shorter-term debt been
successful at enabling businesses to borrow for new buildings and machines at
lower interest rates than they otherwise would have to pay? Has it also enabled consumers to borrow for
home mortgage loans at lower mortgage rates than they would have had to pay
otherwise? Was the reason for increasing
the issuance of shorter-term debt as a percentage of newly issued U.S. debt to
increase liquidity in the longer term, or was it to reduce the interest cost of
the debt, or was it something else, or some combination? I have a little more on this below.
2. If the U.S. Treasury would now switch to relying
more on longer-term debt, then would that reduce the amount that firms would be
able to borrow to spend on machines and buildings and that consumers would be
able to borrow for home mortgage loans?
All other things equal or ceteris paribus, what impact would that
have on U.S. real GDP?
3. What impact would the above have on U.S.
employment? My new book from Palgrave
Macmillan, Bad Breaks in Real GDP and Employment: Exploring the Persistence of Aggregate Demand
Shocks in the United States, finds that the U.S. economy never completed
its recovery from some economic recessions in terms of what both real GDP and
employment would have been in the United States had they returned to all
pre-recession trends. Why do many people at
least implicitly assume that if the unemployment rate in an economy
returns to the ‘natural rate of unemployment,’ then the number of people
employed has returned to its pre-recession trend and that real GDP has
returned to its long-run equilibrium, which could be thought of as the maximum
that an economy can produce sustainably year after year with given resources
and technology?
4. Is increasing U.S. real GDP presently a worthwhile
goal if recoveries from some recessions have not been completed? Is the main potential drawback a possible
increase in inflation?
5. From perhaps a mainstream perspective, if the U.S.
Treasury is concerned with reducing the cost of the national debt to taxpayers,
then would it make sense to issue debt at maturity lengths where the interest
rate that the federal government would need to pay to borrow the funds would be
the lowest? Is that what the U.S.
Treasury was attempting to do by relying on shorter-term debt? If the analysis of Irving Fisher was correct
that lenders (and perhaps borrowers) factor their inflation forecasts into
interest rates on loans to keep the real interest rate essentially unchanged,
then was the U.S. Treasury signaling that financial markets were pricing an
inflation premium into longer term debt that was too high and that the U.S.
federal government could save taxpayers funds by refinancing at lower interest
rates in the future? Is my memory
correct that at least some believe that the U.S. Treasury should issue debt at
different maturity lengths to accommodate financial market participants with
different preferences? Also, was the
goal of increasing the use of shorter term U.S. debt ‘in the mix’ to have funds
from businesses and households ‘tied up’ for less time?
6. By contrast, are there lessons from modern money
theory (also known as modern monetary theory)?
Am I correct that modern money theory would point out that the U.S.
federal government (at least in the very short term) does not spend tax dollars
but in essence creates money electronically by crediting recipients’ bank
accounts? Did former Federal Open Market
Committee Chair Ben Bernanke make a very similar point if not the same point years
ago when he appeared on the TV program 60 Minutes? Although my understanding is that the excess
of federal government expenditures over federal government revenues must be
matched by borrowing if the Federal Reserve does not have sufficient funds in
the U.S. Treasury’s transaction account held and operated by the Fed, is it the
case that the U.S. Treasury (with assistance from the Fed) spends first and
funds those expenditures later? How
could the U.S. government (if acting reasonably and responsibly) default on its
own debt when most if not all of the debt is denominated in U.S. dollars, where
the U.S. government itself exhibits considerable control over the quantity of
those dollars in circulation and can increase the supply at relatively low cost?
We should have more information about the U.S.
Treasury’s debt management plans soon.
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